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Doctors Lounge - Neurology Answers
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| af33
- Sat Oct 04, 2003 2:26 am |
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Hiyas,
I was wondering if this made any sense. The diagnosis in an autopsy is that:
"Several ruptured blood vessels are evident in the brain and brainstem upon removal of bone material. Several small shards of bone were found in the area. A small (appx. 25 mm) aneurysm is present in the subarachnoid space at the top of the damaged area. This aneurysm had hemorrhaged, but the extent of the hemorrhage was small. The cause of death was concluded to be the massive internal bleeding caused by several ruptured blood vessels near the brainstem. Although the hemorrhaged aneurysm was one of several ruptured blood vessels, it alone did not release sufficient quantities of blood to cause the subject’s death."
Then, on testing the cerebrospinal fluid, there was less than 1 part of blood per 100 parts of CSF. How is this possible? Thanks for the help~
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| Dr. Tamer Fouad
- Sat Oct 04, 2003 6:04 am |
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 Af33,
The report you send indicates that cause of death was deep (parynchemal) intracerebral hemorrage. Blood in the CSF reflects hemorrhage in the subarachnoid space (which contains the CSF). Yes it is possible for traumatic parynchemal intracerebral hemorrhage to exist without subarachnoid hemorrhage.
I would like to refer you to these pages on The Doctor's Lounge for a better understanding of the subject:
Best regards.
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| af33
- Sun Oct 05, 2003 10:42 pm |
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Thanks a lot! =)
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