Doctors Lounge - Gynecology Answers
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Forum Name: Obstetrics
|anathemic - Tue Apr 28, 2009 2:27 pm|
I'm on my second pregnancy. My first one was normal with the exception of hypertension in the third trimester. My due date for this second pregnancy is July 24th. I was just diagnosed with pre-eclampsia, with no history of it in either family. My mother had low amniotic fluid when she was pregnant with me, I was her 4th pregnancy, as she had 3 abortions before deciding that she wanted to be a parent. I've noticed that there is a genetic link between abortions/miscarriages and pre-eclampsia after looking up information on pre-eclampsia.
I have come to the conclusion that anyone who has abortions is at a higher risk for having pre-eclampsia and genetically predisposing of it to their offspring.
definition of abortion from dictionary.com
a⋅bor⋅tion /əˈbɔrʃən/ Show Spelled Pronunciation [uh-bawr-shuhn]
–noun 1. Also called voluntary abortion. the removal of an embryo or fetus from the uterus in order to end a pregnancy.
2. any of various surgical methods for terminating a pregnancy, esp. during the first six months.
3. Also called spontaneous abortion. miscarriage
4. an immature and nonviable fetus.
6. any malformed or monstrous person, thing, etc.
7. Biology. the arrested development of an embryo or an organ at a more or less early stage.
8. the stopping of an illness, infection, etc., at a very early stage.
9. Informal. a. shambles; mess.
b. anything that fails to develop, progress, or mature, as a design or project.
1540–50; < L abortiōn- (s. of abortiō). See abort, -ion
So the above definition includes a reference to a miscarriage.
Now if abortion=miscarriage, then the female body also recognizes it as a loss of life, as if by a natural miscarriage. With that said we can factually represent abortion being the same as miscarriage. This is a significant thing, don't get me wrong, this is the basis for what I'm about to explain.
In theory, based on facts, women who have abortions are more likely at risk to have pre-eclampsia and predestined it to their future children in their genetics.
When a fetus is terminated, naturally or by force, the body makes a note of this in the genetic memory. It basically tells the genes that are passed down, that any pregnancy with this genetic makeup is bound to be a failure if brought to term. So fetus's that are perfectly healthy can be determined as detrimental just because of the genetic link to abortion.
Because of this, even if you have not had an abortion or a miscarriage, but any of the females on your maternal side stemming from your mother, grandmother on up have had one, you are genetically destined to be more likely to have a miscarriage.
here is some information from wikipedia which will help you understand more on how it links to pre-eclampsia-
Many theories have attempted to explain why preeclampsia arises, and have linked the syndrome to the presence of the following:
endothelial cell injury
immune rejection of the placenta
compromised placental perfusion
altered vascular reactivity
imbalance between prostacyclin and thromboxane
decreased glomerular filtration rate with retention of salt and water
decreased intravascular volume
increased central nervous system irritability
disseminated intravascular coagulation
uterine muscle stretch (ischemia)
dietary factors, including vitamin deficiency
The two things that stick out is immune rejection-which you develope your immune system from genetics, and genetic factors- things like genetic memory. Your immune system determines what your body rejects based on genetic memory. Things like allergies to food and medications can be linked through genetics. Therefore genetic memory comes into play. Genetic memory is what tells you what is good and what is bad, and if you are one of those that carries a gene, from maternal or paternal side, you are more likely to have or develop the same symptoms or problems that effect your parents. There may not be alot of studies done on genetic linking from the paternal side to assume that it is linked through a father or any of his kin, but it has yet to be disproved as well. For arguements sake, would it be wrong to say that abortion leads to pre-eclampsia? If this is not enough then here is another thing to look at also cited from wikipedia.
The pre-eclampsia syndrome is thought in many cases to be caused by a shallowly implanted placenta which becomes hypoxic, leading to an immune reaction characterized by secretion of upregulated inflammatory mediators from the placenta, and acting on the vascular endothelium. The shallow implantation is thought to stem from the maternal immune system's response to the placenta. This theory emphasizes the role of the maternal immune system, and refers to evidence suggesting a lack of established immunological tolerance to paternal antigens from the fetus and its placenta. In some cases of pre-eclampsia it is thought that the mother lacks the receptors for the proteins the placenta is using to downregulate the maternal immune system's response to it. This view is also consistent with evidence showing many miscarriages to be an immunological disorder where the mother's immune system "unleashes a destructive attack on the tissues of the developing fetus."
In many cases of the pre-eclampsia syndrome, however, the maternal response to the placenta appears to have allowed for normal implantation. It is possible that women with higher baseline levels of inflammation stemming from underlying conditions such as chronic hypertension or autoimmune disease may have less tolerance for the inflammatory burden of pregnancy.
So the above said, chronic hypertension is usually preventable, but sometimes with genetics you are more likely to have it, and with pregnancy you are more likely to develope Pregnancy Induced Hypertension. Which is a genetic factor.
Does this makes sense yet?
Basically the link between genetic memory and abortions mean that someone who has abortions are more likely to carry the gene for miscarriage, but also pre-eclampsia which can be linked to genetic immunities, which are determined by factors in pregnancy like miscarriage, and the genetic anomolies factoring into why a fetus is unviable, even if perfectly healthy.
My main question is, can this be factual? and if so, why has it not been available to the public as common knowledge?
|drvinita - Tue May 26, 2009 10:57 pm|
There is a definite connection between incidences of obstetric mishaps and third trimester complications.Even women treated for infertility have higher risk of pregnancy complications.You have done your research right in finding out the possible causes.But as there are hardly any double blind clinical studies ,hence the connection can not be described as absolute.may be your medical advisor has not told you lest it should cause unnecessary alarm as there are large gaps still in our knowledge on this subject
|Kinkles - Wed Feb 10, 2010 4:04 am|
I recently had my full term baby girl pass away at birth. The doctor said it was due to velamentous and marginally inserted placenta. I noticed on the report on the placenta that it stated that it is common in abortions and miscarriages. If I have had a previous abortion and had this kind of placenta, is it due to the abortion? As in did the placenta form that way due to having an abortion before?
If you could please give me some incite, that would be great.
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